Related provisions for BIPRU 14.2.8

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BIPRU 7.2.4RRP

Table: Instruments which result in notional positions

This table belongs to BIPRU 7.2.3R(2)

Instrument

See

Futures, forwards or synthetic futures on debt securities

BIPRU 7.2.13 R

Futures, forwards or synthetic futures on debt indices or baskets

BIPRU 7.2.14R

Interest rate futures or forward rate agreements (FRAs)

BIPRU 7.2.18 R

Interest rate swaps or foreign currencyswaps

BIPRU 7.2.21R

Deferred start interest rate swaps or foreign currencyswaps

BIPRU 7.2.24R

The interest rate leg of an equityswap (unless the firm calculates the interest rate PRR on the instrument using the basic interest rate PRR calculation in BIPRU 7.3 (Equity PRR and basic interest rate PRR for equity derivatives))

BIPRU 7.2.27R

The cash leg of a repurchase agreement or a reverse repurchase agreement

BIPRU 7.2.30R

Cash borrowings or deposits

BIPRU 7.2.31 R

Options on a debt security, a basket of debt securities, a debt security index, an interest rate or an interest rate future or swap (including an option on a future on a debt security) (unless the firm calculates a PRR on the option under BIPRU 7.6 (Option PRR))

BIPRU 7.2.32R

Dual currency bonds

BIPRU 7.2.33R

Foreign currency futures or forwards

BIPRU 7.2.34R

Gold futures or forwards

BIPRU 7.2.34R

Forwards, futures or options (except cliquets) on an equity, basket of equities or equity index (unless the firm calculates the interest rate PRR on the instrument using the basic interest rate PRR calculation in BIPRU 7.3)

BIPRU 7.2.34R

Credit derivatives

BIPRU 7.11

A warrant must be treated in the same way as an option

BIPRU 7.2.11RRP
(1) For the purposes of calculating interest rate PRR, unless specified otherwise, a firm must derive the value of notional positions as follows:(a) notional positions in actual debt securities must be valued as the nominal amount underlying the contract at the current market price of the debt security; and(b) positions in zero-specific-risk securities must be valued using one of the two methods in (2).(2) A firm must use one of the following two methods for all positions arising
BIPRU 7.2.43RRP
(1) A firm must calculate the specific risk portion of the interest rate PRR for each debt security by multiplying the market value of the individual net position (ignoring the sign) by the appropriate position risk adjustment from the table in BIPRU 7.2.44R or as specified by BIPRU 7.2.45R - BIPRU 7.2.48L R or by BIPRU 7.11.13 R - BIPRU 7.11.17 R.33(2) Notional positions in zero-specific-risk securities do not attract specific risk.(3) For the purpose of (1), a firm may cap the
BIPRU 7.11.5RRP
A credit default swap does not create a position for general market risk. For the purposes of specific risk, a firm must record a synthetic long position in an obligation of the reference entity, unless the derivative is rated externally and meets the conditions for a qualifying debt security, in which case a long position in the derivative is recorded. If premium or interest payments are due under the product, these cash flows must be represented as notional positions in zero-specific-risk
BIPRU 7.11.11RRP
Ifan nth-to-default4 derivative is externally rated and meets the conditions for a qualifying debt security, then the protection seller need only calculate one specific risk charge reflecting the rating of the derivative. The specific risk charge must be based on the securitisationPRAs in BIPRU 7.2 as applicable.44
BIPRU 14.2.4RRP
BIPRU 14.2.5 R to BIPRU 14.2.8 R apply for the purposes of BIPRU 13.4 (CCR mark to market method).
BIPRU 14.2.5RRP
In the case of total return swap credit derivatives and credit default swap credit derivatives, a firm must obtain a figure for potential future credit exposure by multiplying the nominal amount of the instrument by the following percentages:(1) 5% where the reference obligation is one that if it gave rise to a direct exposure of the firm would be a qualifying debt security for the purposes of BIPRU 7.2;(2) 10 % where the reference obligation is one that if it gave rise to a direct
COLL 5.2.22AGRP
[deleted]131(1) In the FCA's view the requirement in COLL 5.2.22R (1)(a) can be met where:(a) the risks of the underlying financial instrument of a derivative can be appropriately represented by another financial instrument and the underlying financial instrument is highly liquid; or(b) the authorised fund manager or the depositary has the right to settle the derivative in cash, and cover exists within the scheme property which falls within one of the following asset classes:(i)
LR 19.4.11BRRP
1For the purposes of compliance with the transparency rules, the FCA considers that an issuer of securitised derivatives should comply with DTR 4, DTR 5 and DTR 6 as if it were an issuer of debt securities as defined in the transparency rules.

Instrument

Requirement

A Debt

Maturity

0-2 years

2-5 years

>5 years

Central Government

2%

5%

13%

Qualifying debt securities

· fixed rate

8%

8%

15%

· floating rate

10%

10%

15%

Non-qualifying debt securities

· fixed rate

10%

20%

30%

· floating rate

30%

30%

30%

B Equities

· Traded on a recognised or designated investment exchange.

25%

· other

100%

C Stock position in physical commodities

· Physical positions associated with firm'sinvestment business

30% of realisable value

D Derivatives

· Exchange traded futures and written options

4 x initial margin requirement.

· otc futures and written options

Apply the appropriate percentage shown in Sections A, B, & C above to the market value of the underlying position.

· Purchased options

Apply the appropriate percentage shown in Sections A, B & C above to the market value of the underlying position but the result may be limited to the market value of the option.

· Contracts for differences

20% of the market value of the contract.

E Other investments

· units in regulated collective investment schemes

25% of realisable value.

· with profit life policies

20% of surrender value.

· other

100% of the value of investment or underlying instrument.

LR 1.6.1ARRP
1An issuer must comply with the rules that are applicable to every security in the category of listing which applies to each security the issuer has listed. The categories of listing are:(1) premium listing (commercial company); (2) premium listing (closed-ended investment fund);(3) premium listing (open-ended investment companies);(3A) premium listing (sovereign controlled commercial company);3(4) standard listing (shares);(5) standard listing (debt and debt-like securities);(6)
LR 4.2.4RRP
The following minimum information from the PR Regulation5 must be included in listing particulars:(1) for an issue of bonds including bonds convertible into the issuer's shares or exchangeable into a third party issuer'sshares or derivative securities1, irrespective of the denomination of the issue, the minimum information required by Annexes 7 and 15 of the PR Regulation5;11(2) the additional information required by Annexes 17 and 18 of the PR Regulation5 where relevant;(3) for
MAR 5A.3.5RRP
A firm must not engage in:(1) matched principal trading on an OTF operated by it except in bonds, structured finance products, emission allowances and derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with article 5 of EMIR, and where the client has consented; or(2) dealing on own account on an OTF operated by it, excluding matched principal trading, except in sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.[Note: article
REC 2.16A.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A-9H3

1(1)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must also operate a regulated market3.

(2)

An exchange5 operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must comply with those requirements of-

(a)

any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement Chapter 1 of Title II of the markets in financial instruments directive—5

3

(i)

as they have effect on IP completion day, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act; and5

(ii)

as amended from time to time, in all other cases;5

(b)

any EU regulation originally made under Chapter 1 of the markets in financial instruments directive which is retained direct EU legislation, or any subordinate legislation (within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978) made under those provisions on or after IP completion day;5

3

which are applicable to a market operator35operating such a facility.

(3)

The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses).

(4)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility must provide the FCA with a detailed description of -

(a)

the functioning of the multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility;

(b)

any links to another trading venue owned by the same [UK RIE] or to a systematic internaliser owned by the same exchange; and

(c)

a list of the facility’s members, participants and users.

[Note:MiFID ITS 19 prescribes the content and format of the description of the functioning of a MTF or OTF to be provided to the FCA]3

(5)3

Any multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE] must have at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation.

Paragraph 9B – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a multilateral trading facility operated by it.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] must not on a multilateral trading facility operated by it -

(a)

execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or

(b)

engage in matched principal trading.

Paragraph 9C – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: access to a facility3

The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a multilateral trading facility regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership to (as the case may be) only -3

(a)

an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity5;

(b)

a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits.5

(c)

a person who –

(i)

is of sufficient good repute;

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability, and competence and experience;

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements; and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role it is to perform, taking account of the financial arrangements the [UK RIE] has established in order to guarantee the adequate settlement transactions.

Paragraph 9D – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9E – SME growth markets3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] operating an SME growth market5 (an “exchange-operated SME growth market”) must comply with rules made by the FCA for the purposes of this paragraph as they have effect on IP completion day5.

[Note:REC 2.16A.1D]4

(2)3

An exchange-operated SME growth market must not admit to trading a financial instrument which is already admitted to trading on another SME growth market unless the issuer of the instrument has been informed of the proposed admission to trading and has not objected.

(3)3

Where an exchange-operated SME growth market exchange admits a financial instrument to trading in the circumstances of paragraph (2), that exchange-operated SME growth market may not require the issuer of the financial instrument to demonstrate compliance with -

(a)

any obligation relating to corporate governance, or

(b)

the disclosure obligations.

(4)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9F – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

[A UK RIE] operating an organised trading facility must -

(a)

execute orders on that facility on a discretionary basis in accordance with sub-paragraph (4);

(b)

not execute any client orders on that facility against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the [UK RIE] unless in accordance with sub-paragraph (2);

(c)

not operate a systematic internaliser within the same legal entity;

(d)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with a systematic internaliser in a way which enables orders in an organised trading facility and orders or quotes in a systematic internaliser to interact; and

(e)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with another organised trading facility in a way which enables orders in different organised trading facilities to interact.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] may only engage in -

(a)

matched principal trading on an organised trading facility operated by it in respect of-

(i)

bonds,

(ii)

structured finance products,

(iii)

emission allowances,

(iv)

derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with Article 5 of the EMIR regulation,

where the client has consented to that; or

(b)

dealing on own account on an organised trading facility operated by it, otherwise than in accordance with sub-paragraph (a), in respect of sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.

(3)3

If the [UK RIE] engages in matched principal trading in accordance with sub-paragraph (2)(a) it must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading5.

(4)3

The discretion which the [UK RIE] must exercise in executing a client order may only be the discretion mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) or in sub-paragraph (6) or both.

(5)3

The first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the organised trading facility.

(6)3

The second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the organised trading facility at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the [UK RIE’s] obligations under—5

(a)

section 11.2A of the Conduct of Business sourcebook;5

(b)

Articles 64 to 66 of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/565 of 25 April 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards organisational requirements and operating conditions for investment firms and defined terms for the purposes of that Directive;5

(c)

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/575 of 8 June 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council on markets in financial instruments with regard to regulatory technical standards concerning the data to be published by execution venues on the quality of execution of transactions; and5

(d)

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/576 of 8 June 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for the annual publication by investment firms of information on the identity of execution venues and on the quality of execution.5

(7)3

Where the organised trading facility crosses client orders the [UK RIE] may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system.

(8)3

Subject to the requirements of this paragraph, with regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the [UK RIE] may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more comparable potentially trading interests in a transaction.

(9)3

The [UK RIE] must comply with rules made by the FCA as they have effect on IP completion day5 as to how Articles 24, 25, 27 and 28 of the markets in financial instruments directive apply to its operation of an organised trading facility.

(10)3

Nothing in this paragraph prevents a [UK RIE] from engaging an investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE]provided the investment firm does not have close links with the [UK RIE].

(11)3

In this paragraph -

“close links” has the meaning given in Article 2(1)(21) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 2(1A) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;5

“non-equities” means bonds, structured finance products, emissions allowances and derivatives traded on a trading venue to which Article 8(1) of the markets in financial instrument regulation applies.

Paragraph 9G – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on an organised trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of the organised trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9H – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: FCA request for information3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must, when requested to do so, provide the FCA with a detailed explanation in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, of -

(a)

why the organised trading facility does not correspond to and cannot operate as a multilateral trading facility, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;

(b)

how discretion will exercised in executing client orders, and in particular when an order to the organized trading facility may be retracted and when and how two or more client orders will be matched within the facility; and

(c)

its use of matched principal trading.

(2)3

Any information required under sub-paragraph (1) must be provided to the FCA in the manner which it considers appropriate.

BIPRU 1.2.18RRP
In order to calculate the proportion that trading book business bears to total business for the purpose of BIPRU 1.2.17 R (1)(a) to BIPRU 1.2.17R (1)(c) the firm must refer to the size of the combined on- and off-balance-sheet business. For this purpose, debt instruments must be valued at their market prices or their principal values, equities at their market prices and derivatives according to the nominal or market values of the instruments underlying them. Long positions and
DTR 3.1.1GRP
This chapter contains guidance on certain of6 the notification obligations of issuers, persons discharging managerial responsibilities and their connected persons under article 19 of the Market Abuse Regulation6, in respect of transactions conducted on their own account in shares or debt instruments6 of the issuer, or derivatives or any other financial instrument relating to those shares.1